So...I'm wondering something.

The other day, my least favourite pitcher and the bane of my existence, John "That Meathead" Lackey, to a no-hit bid into the 8th inning.  That no-hit bid was subsequently broken up by Josh Bard (of all people).

But here's where I'm a little confused.

Articles the next day said that he had taken a "no-no" into the 8th.  But....it's not really a no-no, is it?  I mean, does "no-no" not stand for "no hits, no runs"?

There was a run that scored.  Granted, it was an unearned run (I believe a walk, stolen-base, and eventual pass-ball), but it was a run nonetheless.

So, what's the deal?  Is it wrong to call it a no-no if an unearned run is registered?  Or does "no-no" actually mean, "no hits, no earned runs"?  And if that's the case, the only way a pitcher can throw a no-hitter but not a no-no is if he manages to plate a run entirely on walks and beanballs?  Why bother splitting the hairs there?

And once that's clarified, how do you feel about it?

I'll tell you how I feel about it once someone clears it up for me.